The objection is often raised that the baptism mentioned in Acts 2:38; Gal. 3:27; Romans 6:3,4; Mark 16:16 and Matt. 28:19, among others, is not referring to water baptism, but to “Spirit baptism.” I will endeavor to briefly show why these passages are to be understood as referring to water baptism of the believer.

Whatever this baptism is in the above mentioned passages, I think we can agree that it means the same thing in each instance. There are some mentions of “baptism,” of course, that are clearly metaphorical (Matt. 20:22-23, Mark 10:38-39). Those mentioned above are generally agreed upon to mean the same thing, however.

The reasoning for understanding these passages to refer to water baptism follows:

First, the baptism mentioned in Matthew 28:19 had human administrators. Christ commissioned the disciples to go preach and baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Only Christ Himself could baptize in the Spirit, (Matt. 3:11). Additionally, I can find no commentators or scholars who deny that this passage refers to water baptism. Therefore, in passages where baptism seems to refer to conversion, being put into Christ or being added to the church, it is reasonable to surmise that we are talking about water baptism, in light of Matt. 28:19.

Second, it is clear in Rom. 6:3,4 and Col. 2:12 that an immersion in something and a raising from that something are described. If this refers to spirit baptism, then it would seem strange that one would be immersed in the Spirit, and then raised up out of that same Spirit. This does not accurately apply to our understanding of the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. If one is raised out of the Holy Spirit, is one no longer indwelt? Romans 8:9 and Gal. 4:6 say if we don’t have this Spirit in us, we are not sons of Him. Therefore, it seems much more reasonable to conclude that Romans 6:3,4 and Gal. 3:27 describe water baptism, not a Spirit baptism. In water baptism, one goes down into the water like a burial, and is raised up out of the water like a resurrection. Compare this to Romans 6:1-6.

Third, 1 Peter 3:20,21 clearly connects the waters of the flood and the waters of baptism in a type-antitype connection. Isn’t it reasonable that if this passage refers to water baptism, that the others mentioned do as well?

Fourth, and finally, common sense in Biblical exegesis must prevail. The word “baptize” and its derivatives is used about 100 times in the New Testament. There are some cases, such as in Mt. 20:22-23; Mark 10:38-39; and Lk. 12:50 where “baptism” clearly has a figurative meaning. There is also the special meaning of “baptism in the Holy Spirit,” which Jesus prophesied would come following His resurrection (Matt. 3:11; Acts 1:5). But unless there are clear contextual clues that indicate “baptize” is used in a special way, we must conclude that it carries its normal meaning, as defined in Strong’s:

G907
????????
baptizo?
bap-tid’-zo
From a derivative of G911; to make whelmed (that is, fully wet); used only (in the New Testament) of ceremonial ablution, especially (technically) of the ordinance of Christian baptism: – baptist, baptize, wash.

This is not to deny, of course, that there is a spiritual element to New Testament baptism. Acts 2:38 tells us that those who repent and are baptized will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. Acts 22:16 says that remission of sins follows baptism. John 3:5 indicates that baptism is both a physical and spiritual occurance.

We can be assured that the passages where baptism is mentioned in connection with conversion and remission of sins, water baptism is in view.